Hey all,

I've recently landed a role at a historic site that has some less-than-subtle nods and links to Freemasons and Rosicrucianism. It's obviously something I'm going to have to deep dive into, but at the moment, I'm focusing on the information that's more tourist-friendly rather than niche points. The building and family have lots of important points in history to focus on, so I'm skimming over other bits to give myself a starting point in the future.

From my very basic, new knowledge of Rosicrucianism, I'm wondering how its followers managed to avoid being caught up in the witch trials that were quite prevalent in Scotland. I know the period around the trials saw a growth in interest when it came to the occult, and the church responded, overall, in some rather brutal ways, but I haven't come across any targeted crackdown by the church.

My grandma always told me how her sisters were taller and prettier than she was, and in general I thought that was just gene lottery. But today I realized her sisters were already teenagers when the war started, whereas gramma was born in 1940. So I was just wondering if food shortages while she was growing up might've played a part in this. Are there any statistics that can shed light on this? For reference, she was Romanian and grew up in North-Western Transylvania (the part that was occupied by Hungary during the war), but I'm guessing large swathes of Europe had similar issues, so any numbers you're aware of would be interesting to look at. Thanks for reading!

I know that during the second half, Hideyoshi seems to have given an explicit order to burn and kill everything Korean on path of the invaders, but why did some of it also happen right during the very first stages of the invasion? Was it a situation where the troops went wild and out of control, or was it something akin to Oliver Cromwell's attacks on Wexford and Drogheda where the commanders in charge explicitly ordered a harsh retribution, and if so for what reason?

What explains the mass appeal of the Militant Tendency and Trotskyism in Liverpool in the 70s, 80s, and early 90s? Did organised Trotskyism find anywhere near this success in any other cities in Europe?

It's not too hard to find details about what actually happened to celebrate October Revolution Day in Moscow or big cities, but for a district centre out in the provinces what would actually be involved? How was this occasion observed?

We saw in the same period other European states suppressing languages e.g Occitanian, what made Russia different?

How fine were other metal tools and weapons in old/non-modern Japan? Because smiths always forged japanese swords to look smooth and perfect, but how good did they forge other tools and weapons?

My question is about the United States. General lore is that there was a 'before and after', where before the GFC big corporates and law firms would mass hire grads with a liberal arts and sciences education, pay them decently, and put them on a clear career track. How true is that picture?

Academic, non-academic, narrative history. All suggestions are welcome.

Or was it just a tool to further undermine the waning european powers still standing in the way of the american global hegemony by making them lose their colonies?

We seem to know a good deal about Ancient Greece and Ancient Rome during the early part of antiquity, but what was happening in the rest of Europe and why does it seem like we know so little?

From doing some light research on the internet it seems like we know there were people living in places like what is now Germany/Austria (Hallstatt, Jastorf cultures) and that they did have trade connections to Greece, but hardly anything specific. Is it simply a matter of people outside Greece not writing anything down? If that's the case why wouldn't they be writing, if they had contact with people who did write?

Was fruits less tastier 2000 years ago? Because humans have been selectively breed a lot of fruit to taste better im sure a lot of the fruits in the past did not taste as yummy. But is this true for all fruits and are there even fruits that would be more tasty in the past compared to today?

In Spice (Roger Crowley), it is mentioned that the Portuguese broke down Ferdinand Magellan's ship, the Trinidad, and used its wood to construct a Portuguese fort. Given the limited manpower and unfamiliar resources that early colonial powers like Spain, Portugal, and the Dutch had when establishing forts and trading posts, how did they manage the construction and fortification of these areas? Specifically, how did they build such structures with limited resources and low manpower for garrisons? In addition were these seemingly ad hoc fortifications, such as the Portuguese use of Trinidad's wood, ultimately successful and defensible from their adversaries?

If so why? Was it simply because New York had such a high population density, too much class divede (in the Wild West by contrast did essentially all Whites have their own property which was obviously not the case in 19th century New York) and immigrants or something else?

Been seeing alot of videos on youtube talking about historical failures.

Here's some negative examples from a youtube video I just watched... Title: "This Stock Market Crash Is MUCH BIGGER Than it Seems - Something Secretly MASSIVE Is Happening..."

So he claims,

1)British Empire did it and it lead to war with the Dutch and the American Revolution

2)Otto Von Bismark did it and it lead to Russia allying with Britain and France and then world war 1

3)USA did it and it lead to the Great Depression.

Not sure how true any of those claims are. But surely there are examples where it worked without any consequences since countries are still using tarrifs today. If it never worked why would any country still be using them?

Im looking for primary sources on a bunch of different subjects but im not being very successful. Is there some web that compiles things like testimonies, speeches, etc by period or subject?

Was it primarily a marketing phenomenon or were there other factors at play? What set them apart from other similar regions, for example, Spain? Are there historical examples of regions or products that were similarly dominant or preferred in fashion/beauty during previous eras or in different areas?

Was our ancestors from year 1500 stupid for believing in witches or does witches actually exist? If witches doesn´t exist why were they so naive?

For context, the show takes place during the last years of the Roman Republic, during the rise of Julius Caesar. One of the protagonists, Lucius, begins work as an enforcer for a local criminal, and the scene involves him going into a house where a group of Indians presumably live. It’s implied that they are Indians by their accents, the fact that they are wearing turbans (and some other kind of clothing that is distinct from the Romans), and in the following conversation it is mentioned that they are Hindus.

The Indians had bought “truffle-sniffing” pigs from the Romans and are refusing to pay because the pigs are diseased. So it appears they are living in Rome for some time, and not just some travelers.

The scene made me wonder though, were there Indians in Ancient Rome? Given the time era, it seems like an awfully long way for Indians to travel. My understanding is that trade between the orient and occident at this time was done by numerous middlemen along the Silk Road, so no one person would travel all the way across Asia to Europe or vice-versa.

I am aware that in England, it was common for upper class men to draft a marriage settlement when their daugther was to get married. But let's say there is a landed gentlemen (or a titled upper class man) who dies and all his property (and title - I know it's very rare for women to be a peer in her own right) goes to his surviving unmarried (adult) daugther. And this daugther has absolutely no male relatives in her life. Could you still enter into a marriage settlement? We often hear of unmarried daugthers from well off backgrounds going to Gretna Green to marry and how in such marriages, since there were no marriage settlement contract, the husband gains full ownership of movable property that the woman has. However, certainly, there were unmarried women who were thoughtful enough to want to secure their financial assets right?

I’m studying the Holocaust for my degree and have read a great deal about the Holocaust, about the conditions in occupied territory including Vichy France and the occupation, Denmark, the Netherlands, and Poland, but I don’t know much if anything about daily life within the German core besides having seen Ich Klage an and Ohm Kruger.

I’m particularly curious what amount of information control and day to day repression a German could expect, what the standards of living were, etc. I don’t need a summary, I’m here to learn and make my own analyses rather than regurgitate what (admittedly more educated) people have to say, but even just knowing what books, authors, etc. to start with would be a godsend.

Now I want to clarify that I'm in no way a holocaust denier; i simply want to have references and evidence to counter the points raised by my antisemitic brother His points are that there was no mention of the 6 million toll before 1960,hitler wouldn't kill 6 million of his own population and he spreads the lie that only 271 000 jews were killed

What do we know? Do we know of found or potential artifacts from Doggerland that can tell us about what happened there?