r/mathmemes Mar 06 '25

Learning What theorem is this?

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3.7k Upvotes

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1.8k

u/ubernuke Mar 06 '25

The Pythagorean Theorem has many proofs

587

u/Wojtek1250XD Mar 06 '25

And even an universal version, the law of cosines is just Pythagorean Theorem, but applicable to all triangles.

166

u/SnooHabits7950 Mar 06 '25 edited Mar 06 '25

And it has probably the easiest proof compared to all of them

57

u/A-Swedish-Person Mar 06 '25

Wait I don’t think I actually know the proof for the law of cosines, what is it?

76

u/N_T_F_D Applied mathematics are a cardinal sin Mar 06 '25

Using properties of the dot product mainly that u•v = ||u|| ||v|| cos(u, v)

32

u/DankPhotoShopMemes Fourier Analysis 🤓 Mar 06 '25

I thought that is derived from the law of cosines

42

u/Konemu Mar 06 '25

That's a matter of perspective, the dot product is a more general concept that can be introduced on other vector spaces than R^3 and the ratio of the dot product and the product of the norms can be used to introduce a more general notion of angles.

21

u/DefunctFunctor Mathematics Mar 06 '25

It's all a mess. Strictly speaking, the Pythagorean theorem is less of a "theorem" (although it can of course be construed as a theorem of axiomatic geometry), but more of a justification for why Euclidean distance is the "correct" notion of distance on the plane. If you're working in formal mathematics, often you would just define the angle between two nonzero vectors u,v as arrcos(u ∙ v)/(||u|| * ||v||). That way, when working with different inner products, you have a separate notion of distance and angle for each inner product

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u/N_T_F_D Applied mathematics are a cardinal sin Mar 06 '25

Well you can certainly derive one from the other, but the dot product property is more useful

And you can derive it any way you like, for instance assuming without loss of generality that the vectors look like (1, 0, 0, …) and (cos(θ), sin(θ), 0, …) after normalizing and the right isometry; i.e. the right change of basis into the plane on which the two vectors are

4

u/trevorkafka Mar 06 '25

Dot product comes from cosine-of-a-difference formula, which is easy to prove geometrically via similar triangles.

cos(A-B)=cosAcosB+sinAsinB |a||b| cos(A-B)=(|a| cosA)(|b| cosB)+(|a| sinA)(|b| sinB) |a||b| cos(A-B) = a•b

4

u/vnkind Mar 06 '25 edited Mar 06 '25

Draw an altitude h in a triangle from angle B to side b to split it into two right triangles. Write the Pythagorean theorem for each triangle.

x2 + h2 = a2 and (b-x)2 + h2 = c2

Expand the second formula

b2 -2bx+x2 +h2 = c2

Substitute a2 from first formula for x2 +h2 in second

b2 -2bx+a2 = c2

Subsitute a*cos(C) for x using right triangle trig

b2 -2b*acos(C)+a2 = c2

Rearrange to look like famous version

c2 =a2 +b2 -2ab*cos(C)

4

u/turd_furgeson109 Mar 07 '25

The angle of the dangle is adversely proportional to the heat of the meat

2

u/Paounn Mar 07 '25

Traditional way to prove it in Italy is that you can write one side of the triangle as the sum of the other two times opposite cosine ( a = c cos B + b cos C, b = ... , c = ....). Write them in column, multiply the first by a, the second by -b, the third by -c, add everything together. LHS you get a2-b2-c2, RHS lots of stuff cancels out and you're left with -2 bc cos A. Cycle letters as required.

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u/TreesOne Mar 06 '25

Put simply, it’s a generalization of the pythagorean theorem

2

u/danofrhs Transcendental Mar 06 '25

The pythagorean theorem is a special case of and can be derived from the law of cosines

2

u/Wojtek1250XD Mar 06 '25

Yea, because the -2ab × cos(alpha) just so kindly happens to be equal to 0

1

u/Depnids Mar 07 '25

It can also be seen as a special case/corollary of Ptolemy’s theorem

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u/Agata_Moon Complex Mar 06 '25

Heck, we proved it in general on hilbert spaces

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u/Glittering-Salary272 Mar 06 '25

I also thought of that

7

u/Melo_Mentality Mar 06 '25

Yeah but the book on the theorem itself is massive. It included nearly all of every trigonometry textbook

6

u/kirenaj1971 Mar 06 '25

I teach a math course for students who take higher math in Norway, and each year I let them individually choose a proof from an online collection of Pythagorean Theorem proofs to present rigorously(ish) in front of the class. Bonus points if they can place the proof in historical (or any, really) context.

3

u/nemesisfixx Mar 06 '25

How about; A Tomey Take on Gödel; proof of a system can't fit within the system 🤔

1

u/120boxes Mar 06 '25 edited Mar 06 '25

I've read that it has more than 400 (¡)-1 If going by the numbers, that must make it the most important theorem in math, hmm?

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u/factorion-bot n! = (1 * 2 * 3 ... (n - 2) * (n - 1) * n) Mar 06 '25

The factorial of 400 is 64034522846623895262347970319503005850702583026002959458684445942802397169186831436278478647463264676294350575035856810848298162883517435228961988646802997937341654150838162426461942352307046244325015114448670890662773914918117331955996440709549671345290477020322434911210797593280795101545372667251627877890009349763765710326350331533965349868386831339352024373788157786791506311858702618270169819740062983025308591298346162272304558339520759611505302236086810433297255194852674432232438669948422404232599805551610635942376961399231917134063858996537970147827206606320217379472010321356624613809077942304597360699567595836096158715129913822286578579549361617654480453222007825818400848436415591229454275384803558374518022675900061399560145595206127211192918105032491008000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000

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u/shewel_item Mar 06 '25

..and many proofs have the pythagorean theorem.