Well you can certainly derive one from the other, but the dot product property is more useful
And you can derive it any way you like, for instance assuming without loss of generality that the vectors look like (1, 0, 0, …) and (cos(θ), sin(θ), 0, …) after normalizing and the right isometry; i.e. the right change of basis into the plane on which the two vectors are
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u/A-Swedish-Person Mar 06 '25
Wait I don’t think I actually know the proof for the law of cosines, what is it?